Show that the function πœ™(π‘₯)=𝐢1 𝑒^(βˆ’π‘₯)+𝐢2 𝑒^2π‘₯ is an explicit solution to (𝑑^2 𝑦)/(𝑑π‘₯^2 )βˆ’π‘‘π‘¦/𝑑π‘₯βˆ’2𝑦=0

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